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Re: [Orchid] Sterling  
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From: Douglas Turet
Date: Fri Mar 07 22:12:12 2003
 
     
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Hi folks,

    I've been following this thread, these past few days, and have to
    admit that Al & Peter's comments left me feeling unsure enough that
    I wanted to know more, one way or the other. It'd always been my
    impression that, as far as definitions in the U.S. and England are
    concerned, if 925 parts per 1000 of a given alloy are comprised of
    silver, and 75 parts per 1000 of that alloy are of copper, than it
    is known as Sterling Silver, but that if that non-silver part of the
    alloy _isn't_ copper, while the resulting alloy could still bear the
    purity mark of ".925", it could not, legally, be sold as "Sterling",
    any more than 23 karat gold could be sold as "pure" or a VS Diamond,
    as "flawless". But, as I said, I did some searching, and came up
    with the following... 

    In the U.S. Federal Trade Commission's "Guide for the Jewelry,
    Precious Metals and Pewter Industries", published April 10, 2001
    (viewable at <http://www.ftc.gov/bcp/guides/jewel-gd.htm> ), the
    following appears: 

    "=A7 23.6 Misrepresentation as to silver content. 

    (b) It is unfair or deceptive to mark, describe, or otherwise
    represent all or part of an industry product as "silver," "solid
    silver," "Sterling Silver," "Sterling," or the abbreviation "Ster."
    unless it is at least 925/1,000ths pure silver." 

    So, thanks, Peter: I stand corrected! 

All the best,
Doug

Douglas Turet, GJ
Lapidary Artist, Designer & Goldsmith
Turet Design
P.O. Box 162
Arlington, MA 02476
Tel. (617) 325-5328
eFax (928) 222-0815
anotherbrightidea AT hotmail.com


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